100 Item exam on Fundamentals Of Nursing : Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept of stress and Illness
Fundamentals Of Nursing : Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept of stress and Illness
By : Budek
http://www.pinoybsn.tk
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II
CONTENT OUTLINE
1. Illness
2. Infection and Asepsis
3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation
1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?
A. Pupils will constrict
B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase
2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?
A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion
3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except
A. One should be held responsible for his condition
B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help
9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident
A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks
10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology
11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease
A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology
12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?
A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic
13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as
1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative
A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5
14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease
A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute
15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation
A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic
16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?
A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television
28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?
A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers
29. The following are concept of health:
1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4
30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is
A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers
31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE
A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis
34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another
A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier
35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.
A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host
36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave
37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores
A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis
38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases
A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission
42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?
1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1
43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via
A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity
45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by
A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses
46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection
A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization
48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except
A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin
49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing
52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing
A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap
53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….
A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms
54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is
A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand
55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds
56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?
A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml
57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?
A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization
58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying
A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree Celsius
59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body
A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation
60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?
A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection
61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis
A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?
A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable
63. Which of the following is true about masks?
A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter
64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?
A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan
65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an
A. Puncture proof container
B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”
66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?
A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it
67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?
A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers
B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are reusable
68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?
A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?
A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do
74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except
A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it
75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?
A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.
76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?
A. The dominant hand
B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience
77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?
A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field
78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?
A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on
79. Which gloves should you remove first?
A. The glove of the non dominant hand
B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary
80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5
81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5
82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?
A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches
83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?
A. The tip should always be lower than the handle
B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward
84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?
1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth
2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3
85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to prevent contamination?
1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish
2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4
86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?
A. Wash gloved hand first
B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves
87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?
A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses
B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium
88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.
A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers
89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is not a nervous energy
B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress
90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress
91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?
A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue
92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response
A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person
98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
CLICK HERE FOR CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALE
By : Budek
http://www.pinoybsn.tk
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II
CONTENT OUTLINE
1. Illness
2. Infection and Asepsis
3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation
1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?
A. Pupils will constrict
B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase
2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?
A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion
3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except
A. One should be held responsible for his condition
B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help
9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident
A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks
10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology
11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease
A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology
12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?
A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic
13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as
1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative
A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5
14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease
A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute
15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation
A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic
16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?
A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television
28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?
A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers
29. The following are concept of health:
1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4
30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is
A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers
31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE
A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis
34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another
A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier
35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.
A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host
36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave
37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores
A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis
38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases
A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission
42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?
1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1
43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via
A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity
45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by
A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses
46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection
A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization
48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except
A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin
49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing
52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing
A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap
53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….
A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms
54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is
A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand
55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds
56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?
A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml
57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?
A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization
58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying
A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree Celsius
59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body
A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation
60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?
A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection
61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis
A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?
A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable
63. Which of the following is true about masks?
A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter
64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?
A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan
65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an
A. Puncture proof container
B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”
66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?
A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it
67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?
A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers
B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are reusable
68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?
A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?
A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do
74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except
A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it
75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?
A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.
76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?
A. The dominant hand
B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience
77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?
A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field
78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?
A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on
79. Which gloves should you remove first?
A. The glove of the non dominant hand
B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary
80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5
81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5
82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?
A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches
83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?
A. The tip should always be lower than the handle
B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward
84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?
1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth
2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3
85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to prevent contamination?
1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish
2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4
86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?
A. Wash gloved hand first
B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves
87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?
A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses
B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium
88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.
A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers
89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is not a nervous energy
B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress
90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress
91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?
A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue
92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response
A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person
98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
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When will the answers be posted for this exam?... Thanks!!!
Posted by
Anonymous |
3:28 PM
San na ang answer key?
Posted by
Anonymous |
10:41 PM
pls post exam related to IMCI, OR, RESEARCH
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12:22 PM