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Saturday, September 16, 2006

Voicing out against a retake

Voicing out against a retake
Sent via email

Greetings my fellow Nurses,

I’m already starting to have a headache because of these thoughts that are pestering my mind. I feel like I’m about to explode, and if I don’t let these things out… I might just lose my sanity…I’m a board passer of the recent June 2006 nursing board exam. And I just want to voice out what’s inside my mind.

When I was still reviewing, I remembered a professor saying that he feels nervous about our batch because were the so called “Experimental batch” (experimental because of the new exam setting). After the board exam, because of a certain unfortunate event that affected us… we became the “Controversial batch”. And now after watching the debates in channel 7 and studio 23, I heard some people wanting us to be the “Sacrificial batch”. When I heard that, I think they’re already going too far!!!
I said to myself, what’s the matter with these people??? Don’t they know what they’re saying? I don’t know what has gotten into them that they want us to have a retake. Aside from the arrogance, stupidity, and hypocrisy that I see… there is injustice.

You may ask why I got to say arrogance, this is because one of the board exam passers whom I saw in channel 7 specifically in the show “Debate” was just merely exaggerating his own importance or self-proclaimed genius because his 100% percent sure he could again pass the board exam… I do admire his courage and confidence…but what about the others who studied hard and did not cheat who only got an overall grade of 75%? What do you think would they feel?
For stupidity, I got to say this because why in the world would you ask for a retake if you have already passed. Others say, because they want to clear there name. Well then, if you feel guilty about it and you feel like you did not deserve to pass go ahead file for a retake.
Anyway, the PRC already declared that a retake is optional. But then why should they force or urge others to have a retake??? Well there’s only one answer for that, because they’re scared to do it alone…
For hypocrisy… this came into mind because some passers specially the girl that I saw in studio 23 who is a board passer said that she’s willing to retake the exam for the dignity of the nursing profession. Did she really say that? Hmmm I don’t think that’s the real case… she just got to say that because she’s not satisfied of the grade she got. Another one is the undergraduate who answered that if he was in our situation he would still have a retake and as usual… same reason…for the good of the nursing profession… and for me that’s bullshit! He only got to say those because he knows that he is in a debate and he has to stand firm with his decision and that because he stood up for his school. It’s easy for him to say… because it’s not his ass that’s on the line. He does not know how it feels like for others when your about to take the board exam. As a nurse I suggest to him that he should learn more on the art of empathy. Even if he may find it easy for himself when his time comes…he must also think of the others, who had a hard time studying and preparing for the exam who passed without any leakage and already wants to work as a Nurse and support there families and no longer wants to go through that very hard exam. While I was watching this undergraduate answering the question, I could read his movements and I could even sense the slight jitter in his voice saying that he is not purely sure that he could allow himself to have a retake if he would put himself in our shoes who are innocent. Even if he was good in hiding it or continuously answering the question firmly…the truth was still in his eyes.
As for injustice… well, majority of us June 2006 board exam passers who did not benefit
from the leakage, who reviewed day and night and sacrificed, money and concentration for the exam deserve the right to pass and choose not to have a retake. We are victims here. And personally, I know and God even knows that I passed the exam fair and square. And humanly speaking, I’m not a saint nor a martyr who can willingly sacrifice my self by having a retake knowing that I am innocent.

I really pity the Nursing 2006 graduates from a particular University who are being urged or forced to have a retake (I guess you guys know who you are). Aside from being condemned by their faculty and schoolmates for refusing not to have a retake, they are also being persecuted. But don’t worry guys…have courage and fight for your rights!
And as for the undergrads who are being manipulated like pawns and blinded. They don’t know how it feels like to suffer, to try controlling the tremendous anxiety, to study almost 24 hours a day for an exam that holds one of the keys for you to become a nurse. The main root why their College of Nursing is doing this is because they just can’t accept the fact that none of their students made it to the top 5, two of their best students failed, and because their passing rate went down. I understand there intentions…but I just don’t like the idea of involving the innocent.
I feel sad for what’s happening right now. Amidst this chaos, I know that there is still hope… But a mass retake is definitely not an answer for me. I don’t know what’s installed for us June 2006 board exam passers. But whatever God’s decision maybe… may it be for the good of us all. And may justice be served. So keep on praying guys…

Sent Via Email
Echo Charlie

No clear decision on leakage

No clear decision on leakage

The nursing examination mess has been going on for months with no resolution. The Nursing Board of Examiners has resigned and no replacements have been made. Rather, would-be replacements have declined to serve and they have a very good reason. That is, that the Professional Regulation Commission, is nowhere near to solving the problem and is probably nearer to making it worse. Since the discovery of the leakage of the nursing exam questions which has precipitated the crisis, the commission has reacted with conflicting moves and slow motion steps, none of which have brought any reassurance that they know what they are doing or that they are confronting the problem adequately enough to come to a resolution.

Meanwhile, thousands of nurse candidates who have taken the exams are affected. The situation is so confused that I no longer know who was allowed to take their oaths as professional nurses and who was not and the reasons for each. Someone or some entity has to take charge and right the situation and with the Nursing Board resigned, it is incumbent on the commission. But no clear decision, no clarification of the problem, no satisfactory communication to those concerned or to the public in general has been made.

The only clear voice recently has been that of the Commission on Higher Education whose head, Dr. Carlito Puno, has made a telling observation and proffered a solution. That is, that review centers which compete with the nursing schools and charge higher fees, relatively speaking, are not really being patronized for the quality of their reviews for the examinations, but more for tips, tricks and perhaps leaked questions that they implicitly promise. It is to be recalled that the leakage came from a review center. I have a suspicion that CHED is right on this and therefore, one step toward a solution is to get these review centers out of the way. It is difficult enough to supervise the nursing schools without having to monitor and investigate the review centers.

Meanwhile, the Professional Regulation Commission is fast losing whatever moral or professional authority it has on this matter and by extension on others for the loss of confidence that the public is rapidly acquiring regarding their inaction and absence of assertion of authority to solve the problem.

It is time for the executive department responsible for the appointments to the commission to step in and resolve matters at this stage. Thousands of nursing students, the nursing profession and its future are at stake. It would do them well to consult the deans of the nursing schools for advice too as they confront the issue.

And the next time around that the executive department appoints persons in commissions and boards, let it go beyond mere professional credentials to the more critical quality of whether candidates know right from wrong and can competently make the timely decisions to uphold right and punish wrong.

The paralysis that remains regarding the examination question leakage of more than three months ago is a sorry proof that the wrong appointments have been made.

Closure of review centers rejected

Closure of review centers rejected

By Florante S. Solmerin

CHEATING and excessive fees in review centers will worsen under the supervision of the Commission on Higher Education, a youth group said yesterday.

“How could CHED effectively stop cheating and the imposition of exorbitant fees in nursing review centers if it can’t even penalize private schools which continue to violate its guidelines and increase tuition and other school fees? CHED’s futility in the face of pressure from private school owners only shows that it has no credibility and is incompetent to do the job,” Raymond Palatino, president of the Kabataan Party, said.

He said his group is accusing CHED chairman Carlito Puno and his ward of playing double standard on the nursing exam leakage issue, saying its plan to close down review centers is another knee-jerk solution intended for media consumption.

He said plans to put nursing review centers under colleges and universities under the commission’s supervision would not curb cheating and might even be used as an excuse to increase tuition and charge more fees to nursing students.

“The government and CHED are quick to castigate nursing review centers but they continue to allow the operations of substandard schools which they have tolerated for years,” Palatino said.
Weeks after the exposure of the alleged leak in the June nursing licensure examination, CHED executive director Julito Vitriolo told reporters during a roundtable discussion that it would be better if the commission would reassume responsibility over the supervision of nursing licensure test.

Vitriolo also batted for the commission to regulate the review centers.
Palatino said that the imposition of excessive fees for nursing exam review would likely continue even with the implementation of the said plan as most nursing review centers are owned and operated by nursing school owners themselves.

Friday, September 15, 2006

Petitioners hihiling sa CA laban sa nurses' license
Huwebes, 14 Setyembre, 2006

Petitioners hihiling sa CA laban sa nurses' license

Hihilingin ng mga bagong petitioner sa Court of Appeals ang pagpigil sa pagbibigay ng mga lisensya sa nakapasang nurses sa kontrobersyal na Nursing Licensure Examination.

Ang mga nursing graduate na mula sa Baguio ang bagong petitioner na hihiling ng hiwalay at karagdagang petisyon sa CA sa Biyernes upang huwag mapayagang magbigay ng lisensya sa mga nakaasa sa nursing exam.

Ito ay matapos na mabatid na grupo na maaari pa ring makapanumpa ang mga pumasa sa eksaminasyon noong Hunyo kahit pa mayroon nang temporary restraining order sa Professional Regulation Commission na nagbabawal sa oath-taking.

Sinabi ni PRC Chairwoman Leonor Rosero na nakasaad umano sa kasalukuyang nursing law na maaari pa ring makapanumpa ang mga nakapasa sa pamamagitan ng alkalde, kongresista, deputadong mga empleado ng pamahalaan o notary public.

Napag-alaman na mayroon ding mga lugar sa Estados Unidos at maging sa ibang bansa na hindi na umano nangangailangan pa ng registration mula sa PRC upang makapagtrabaho bilang nurse.

Nabatid mula sa abogado ng mga petitioner na si Cheryl Yangot na posibleng mabigyan ng lisensya ang mga nakapasa sa eksaminasyon kung ang mga ito ay makakapanumpa sa ibang paraan.

Nakatakda din hilingin ng mga petitioner na utusan ang korte na pangasiwaan ng PRC at Board of Nursing ang retake ng Test 3 at 5 sa NLE.

“Ito ay nakabase sa premise na 90 questions ng set five ang na-leak pero gumawa kami ng masusing pagaaral tiningnan naming 100 lahat ng questions ng set 5 lumabas,” pahayag ni Yangot.

Ang estudyanteng si Rachel Erfe, kasama si Dean Grace Lacanaria, ay kapwa nagsabing hindi lang 90 mga tanong sa Test 5 ang naipuslit kundi 100 umano kaya itatama lang nila ang unang impormasyon sa naunang petisyong na humingi ng TRO sa oath-taking ng mga nurse.

Si Erfe ay ang isa sa mga estudyanteng unang nagsiwalat ng leakage sa mga test questions at mga sagot dito at naging saksi umano sa handwritten leaked questions at pagpamahagi ng mga kopya nito sa mga reviewer ng Gapuz Review Center.

Hanggang ngayon ay hinihintay pa rin ang magiging desisyon ng CA tungkol sa resulta ng imbistigasyon ng National Bureau of Investigation at dedesisyunan kung dapat nang alisin ang TRO o itutuloy-tuloy ito sa mga pagdinig sa korte.

Samantala, sinabi ng original petitioners mula sa UST Faculty of Nursing na hindi solusyon sa problema ng nursing licensure ang pagpasailalim sa mga review center sa pangangasiwa ng Commission on Higher Education.

“There is going to be a problem in terms of authority, and discipline of nursing schools how much more these review centers. Number two there is also this problem of resources and manpower,” sinabi ni Prof. Rene Tadle, presidente ng UST Nursing Colleges Faculty.

Ang naturang pahayag ay kinatigan din ng mga bagong petitioner at sinabing hindi kinakaya ng CHED sa kasalukuyan ang pangasiwaan ang standards ng kanilang sakop na mga paaralan lalo pa’t madadagdagan ng daan-daang review centers sakop ang 42 propesyon sa buong bansa.

“I don’t think CHED is the proper agency. Hindi ako naniniwala na may mangyayari kapag ibibigay sa CHED ang powers para iregulate ang mga review schools,” sabi ni Yangot.

Thursday, September 14, 2006

CA questions PRC re-computation of nursing results

CA questions PRC re-computation of nursing results

By Tetch Torres
Last updated 07:58pm (Mla time) 09/14/2006

THE Court of Appeals questioned the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) re-computation of the scandal-tainted June nursing board licensure examination, wondering how the passing percentage could have increased when it should have gone down. Associate Justice Vicente Veloso asked government lawyers how, if the PRC's goal in re-computing the test results was make sure no one benefited from the leakage of exam questions, the number of passers went up by 1.8-percent from 41.24 to 42.42 percent.

He also asked what the point was of re-computing the test results when the leakage happened only in Baguio and Manila.Because of the leakage, PRC issued Resolution 31 invalidating portions of the nursing examination.

The appellate court will continue hearing on Monday the petition of the PRC for the lifting of a temporary restraining order the court issued last month against the oath-taking of board passers.

It also ordered the PRC to provide a list of the 41.24 percent who originally passed the exam

100 Item Exam on Fundamentals Of Nursing : Stress, Crisis, Crisis Intervention, Communication, Recording, Learning and Documentation Answer Key

100 Item Exam on Fundamentals Of Nursing : Stress, Crisis, Crisis Intervention, Communication, Recording, Learning and Documentation

NOTE : I can only provide the correct answer key from now on without the rationale. I am very busy because of my review classes. If you have any questions or corrections, Please send a message using YM or email me at and I Will be glad to answer it for you and provide my reference. Thank you and more power.


By : Budek

Content Outline

1. Physical response to stress
2. Psychological response to stress
3. Spiritual response to stress
4. Stress management
5. Crisis and Crisis intervention
6. Communication
7. Recording
8. Documentation
9. Learning

1. The coronary vessels, unlike any other blood vessels in the body, respond to sympathetic stimulation by

A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilatation
C. Decreases force of contractility
D. Decreases cardiac output

2. What stress response can you expect from a patient with blood sugar of 50 mg / dl?

A. Body will try to decrease the glucose level
B. There will be a halt in release of sex hormones
C. Client will appear restless
D. Blood pressure will increase

3. All of the following are purpose of inflammation except

A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosis
B. Localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeability
C. Protect the issue from injury by producing pain
D. Prepare for tissue repair

4. The initial response of tissue after injury is

A. Immediate Vasodilation
B. Transient Vasoconstriction
C. Immediate Vasoconstriction
D. Transient Vasodilation

5. The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is characterized by

A. There will be sudden redness of the affected part
B. Heat will increase on the affected part
C. The affected part will loss its normal function
D. Exudates will flow from the injured site

6. What kind of exudates is expected when there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of microorganism infection?

A. Serous
B. Serosanguinous
C. Purulent
D. Sanguinous

7. The first manifestation of inflammation is

A. Redness on the affected area
B. Swelling of the affected area
C. Pain, which causes guarding of the area
D. Increase heat due to transient vasodilation

8. The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the client’s antibody for a particular cellular response, Which of the following WBC component is responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury?

A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes

9. Which of the following WBC component proliferates in cases of Anaphylaxis?

A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophil
D. Monocytes

10. Icheanne, ask you, her Nurse, about WBC Components. She got an injury yesterday after she twisted her ankle accidentally at her gymnastic class. She asked you, which WBC Component is responsible for proliferation at the injured site immediately following an injury. You answer:

A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes

11. Icheanne then asked you, what is the first process that occurs in the inflammatory response after injury, You tell her:

A. Phagocytosis
B. Emigration
C. Pavementation
D. Chemotaxis

12. Icheanne asked you again, What is that term that describes the magnetic attraction of injured tissue to bring phagocytes to the site of injury?

A. Icheanne, you better sleep now, you asked a lot of questions
B. It is Diapedesis
C. We call that Emigration
D. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later

13. This type of healing occurs when there is a delayed surgical closure of infected wound

A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention

14. Type of healing when scars are minimal due to careful surgical incision and good healing

A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention

15. Imelda, was slashed and hacked by an unknown suspects. She suffered massive tissue loss and laceration on her arms and elbow in an attempt to evade the criminal. As a nurse, you know that the type of healing that will most likely occur to Miss Imelda is

A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention

16. Imelda is in the recovery stage after the incident. As a nurse, you know that the diet that will be prescribed to Miss Imelda is

A. Low calorie, High protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
B. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foods
C. High calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
D. Low calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods

17. Miss Imelda asked you, What is WET TO DRY Dressing method? Your best response is

A. It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry to remove dead tissues
B. It is a type of surgical debridement with the use of Wet dressing to remove the necrotic tissues
C. It is a type of dressing where in, The wound is covered with Wet or Dry dressing to prevent contamination
D. It is a type of dressing where in, A cellophane or plastic is placed on the wound over a wet dressing to stimulate healing of the wound in a wet medium

18. The primary cause of pain in inflammation is

A. Release of pain mediators
B. Injury to the nerve endings
C. Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluids
D. Circulation is lessen, Supply of oxygen is insufficient

19. The client is in stress because he was told by the physician he needs to undergo surgery for removal of tumor in his bladder. Which of the following are effects of sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client?

1. Constipation
2. Urinary frequency
3. Hyperglycemia
4. Increased blood pressure

A. 3,4
B. 1,3,4

20. The client is on NPO post midnight. Which of the following, if done by the client, is sufficient to cancel the operation in the morning?

A. Eat a full meal at 10:00 P.M
B. Drink fluids at 11:50 P.M
C. Brush his teeth the morning before operation
D. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M

21. The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood test. Adreno-cortical response is activated and which of the following below is an expected response?

A. Low BP
B. Decrease Urine output
C. Warm, flushed, dry skin
D. Low serum sodium levels

22. Which of the following is true about therapeutic relationship?

A. Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally
B. Bases on friendship and mutual trust
C. Goals are set by the solely nurse
D. Maintained even after the client doesn’t need anymore of the Nurse’s help

23. According to her, A nurse patient relationship is composed of 4 stages : Orientation, Identification, Exploitation and Resolution

A. Roy
B. Peplau
C. Rogers
D. Travelbee

24. In what phase of Nurse patient relationship does a nurse review the client’s medical records thereby learning as much as possible about the client?

A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination

25. Nurse Aida has seen her patient, Roger for the first time. She establish a contract about the frequency of meeting and introduce to Roger the expected termination. She started taking baseline assessment and set interventions and outcomes. On what phase of NPR Does Nurse Aida and Roger belong?

A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination

26. Roger has been seen agitated, shouting and running. As Nurse Aida approaches, he shouts and swear, calling Aida names. Nurse Aida told Roger “That is an unacceptable behavior Roger, Stop and go to your room now.” The situation is most likely in what phase of NPR?

A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination

27. Nurse Aida, in spite of the incident, still consider Roger as worthwhile simply because he is a human being. What major ingredient of a therapeutic communication is Nurse Aida using?

A. Empathy
B. Positive regard
C. Comfortable sense of self
D. Self awareness

28. Nurse Irma saw Roger and told Nurse Aida “ Oh look at that psychotic patient “ Nurse Aida should intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is lacking?

A. Empathy
B. Positive regard
C. Comfortable sense of self
D. Self awareness

29. Which of the following statement is not true about stress?

A. It is a nervous energy
B. It is an essential aspect of existence
C. It has been always a part of human experience
D. It is something each person has to cope

30. Martina, a Tennis champ was devastated after many new competitors outpaced her in the Wimbledon event.
She became depressed and always seen crying. Martina is clearly on what kind of situation?

A. Martina is just stressed out
B. Martina is Anxious
C. Martina is in the exhaustion stage of GAS
D. Martina is in Crisis

31. Which of the following statement is not true with regards to anxiety?

A. It has physiologic component
B. It has psychologic component
C. The source of dread or uneasiness is from an unrecognized entity
D. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity

32. Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what level of anxiety does this features belongs?

A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Panic

33. Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board examination. She is sweating profusely, has decreased awareness of his environment and is purely focused on the exam questions characterized by his selective attentiveness. What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying?

A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Panic

34. You noticed the patient chart : ANXIETY +3 What will you expect to see in this client?

A. An optimal time for learning, Hearing and perception is greatly increased
B. Dilated pupils
C. Unable to communicate
D. Palliative Coping Mechanism

35. When should the nurse starts giving XANAX?

A. When anxiety is +1
B. When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness
C. When problem solving is not possible
D. When the client is immobile and disorganized

36. Which of the following behavior is not a sign or a symptom of Anxiety?

A. Frequent hand movement
B. Somatization
C. The client asks a question
D. The client is acting out

37. Which of the following intervention is inappropriate for client’s with anxiety?

A. Offer choices
B. Provide a quiet and calm environment
C. Provide detailed explanation on each and every procedures and equipments
D. Bring anxiety down to a controllable level

38. Which of the following statement, if made by the nurse, is considered not therapeutic?

A. “How did you deal with your anxiety before?”
B. “It must be awful to feel anxious.”
C. “How does it feel to be anxious?”
D. “What makes you feel anxious?”

39. Marissa Salva, Uses Benson’s relaxation. How is it done?

A. Systematically tensing muscle groups from top to bottom for 5 seconds, and then releasing them
B. Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word or sound after each exhalation
C. Using a strong positive, feeling-rich statement about a desired change
D. Exercise combined with meditation to foster relaxation and mental alacrity

40. What type of relaxation technique does Lyza uses if a machine is showing her pulse rate, temperature and muscle tension which she can visualize and assess?

A. Biofeedback
B. Massage
C. Autogenic training
D. Visualization and Imagery

41. This is also known as Self-suggestion or Self-hypnosis

A. Biofeedback
B. Meditation
C. Autogenic training
D. Visualization and Imagery

42. Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic?

A. Valium
B. Ativan
C. Milltown
D. Luvox

43. Kenneth, 25 year old diagnosed with HIV felt that he had not lived up with God’s expectation. He fears that in the course of his illness, God will be punitive and not be supportive. What kind of spiritual crisis is Kenneth experiencing?

1. Spiritual Pain
2. Spiritual Anxiety
3. Spiritual Guilt
4. Spiritual Despair

A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 3,4
D. 1,4

44. Grace, believes that her relationship with God is broken. She tried to go to church to ask forgiveness everyday to remedy her feelings. What kind of spiritual distress is Grace experiencing?

A. Spiritual Pan
B. Spiritual Alienation
C. Spiritual Guilt
D. Spiritual Despair

45. Remedios felt “EMPTY” She felt that she has already lost God’s favor and love because of her sins. This is a type of what spiritual crisis?

A. Spiritual Anger
B. Spiritual Loss
C. Spiritual Despair
D. Spiritual Anxiety

46. Budek is working with a schizophrenic patient. He noticed that the client is agitated, pacing back and forth, restless and experiencing Anxiety +3. Budek said “You appear restless” What therapeutic technique did Budek used?

A. Offering general leads
B. Seeking clarification
C. Making observation
D. Encouraging description of perception

47. Rommel told Budek “ I SEE DEAD PEOPLE “ Budek responded “You see dead people?” This Is an example of therapeutic communication technique?

A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification

48. Rommel told Budek, “Do you think Im crazy?” Budek responded, “Do you think your crazy?” Budek uses what example of therapeutic communication?

A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification

49. Myra, 21 year old nursing student has difficulty sleeping. She told Nurse Budek “I really think a lot about my x boyfriend recently” Budek told Myra “And that causes you difficulty sleeping?” Which therapeutic technique is used in this situation?

A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification

50. Myra told Budek “I cannot sleep, I stay away all night” Budek told her “You have difficulty sleeping” This is what type of therapeutic communication technique?

A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification

51. Myra said “I saw my dead grandmother here at my bedside a while ago” Budek responded “Really? That is hard to believe, How do you feel about it?” What technique did Budek used?

A. Disproving
B. Disagreeing
C. Voicing Doubt
D. Presenting Reality

52. Which of the following is a therapeutic communication in response to “I am a GOD, bow before me Or ill summon the dreaded thunder to burn you and purge you to pieces!”

A. “You are not a GOD, you are Professor Tadle and you are a PE Teacher, not a Nurse. I am Glen, Your nurse.”
B. “Oh hail GOD Tadle, everyone bow or face his wrath!”
C. “Hello Mr. Tadle, You are here in the hospital, I am your nurse and you are a patient here”
D. “How can you be a GOD Mr. Tadle? Can you tell me more about it?”

53. Erik John Senna, Told Nurse Budek “ I don’t want to that, I don’t want that thing.. that’s too painful!” Which of the following response is NON THERAPEUTIC

A. “ This must be difficult for you, But I need to inject you this for your own good”
B. “ You sound afraid”
C. “Are you telling me you don’t want this injection?”
D. “Why are you so anxious? Please tell me more about your feelings Erik”

54. Legrande De Salvaje Y Cobrador La Jueteng, was caught by the bacolod police because of his illegal activities. When he got home after paying for the bail, He shouted at his son. What defense mechanism did Mr. La Jueteng used?

A. Restitution
B. Projection
C. Displacement
D. Undoing

55. Later that day, he bought his son ice cream and food. What defense mechanism is Legrande unconsciously doing?

A. Restitution
B. Conversion
C. Redoing
D. Reaction formation

56. Crisis is a sudden event in ones life that disturbs a person’s homeostasis. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in crisis?

A. The person experiences heightened feeling of stress
B. Inability to function in the usual organized manner
C. Lasts for 4 months
D. Indicates unpleasant emotional feelings

57. Which of the following is a characteristic of crisis?

A. Lasts for an unlimited period of time
B. There is a triggering event
C. Situation is not dangerous to the person
D. Person totality is not involved

58. Levito Devin, The Italian prime minister, is due to retire next week. He feels depressed due to the enormous loss of influence, power, fame and fortune. What type of crisis is Devin experiencing?

A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal

59. Estrada, The Philippine president, has been unexpectedly impeached and was out of office before the end of his term. He is in what type of crisis?

A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal

60. The tsunami in Thailand and Indonesia took thousands of people and change million lives. The people affected by the Tsunami are saddened and do not know how to start all over again. What type of crisis is this?

A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal

61. Which of the following is the BEST goal for crisis intervention?

A. Bring back the client in the pre crisis state
B. Make sure that the client becomes better
C. Achieve independence
D. Provide alternate coping mechanism

62. What is the best intervention when the client has just experienced the crisis and still at the first phase of the crisis?

A. Behavior therapy
B. Gestalt therapy
C. Cognitive therapy
D. Milieu Therapy

63. Therapeutic nurse client relationship is describes as follows

1. Based on friendship and mutual interest
2. It is a professional relationship
3. It is focused on helping the patient solve problems and achieve health-related goals
4. Maintained only as long as the patient requires professional help

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4

64. The client is scheduled to have surgical removal of the tumor on her left breast. Which of the following manifestation indicates that she is experiencing Mild Anxiety?

A. She has increased awareness of her environmental details
B. She focused on selected aspect of her illness
C. She experiences incongruence of action, thoughts and feelings
D. She experiences random motor activities

65. Which of the following nursing intervention would least likely be effective when dealing with a client with aggressive behavior?

A. Approach him in a calm manner
B. Provide opportunities to express feelings
C. Maintain eye contact with the client
D. Isolate the client from others

66. Whitney, a patient of nurse Budek, verbalizes… “I have nothing, nothing… nothing! Don't make me close one more door, I don't wanna hurt anymore!” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by Budek?

A. Why are you singing?
B. What makes you say that?
C. Ofcourse you are everything!
D. What is that you said?

67. Whitney verbalizes that she is anxious that the diagnostic test might reveal laryngeal cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

A. Tell the client not to worry until the results are in
B. Ask the client to express feelings and concern
C. Reassure the client everything will be alright
D. Advice the client to divert his attention by watching television and reading newspapers

68. Considered as the most accurate expression of person’s thought and feelings

A. Verbal communication
B. Non verbal communication
C. Written communication
D. Oral communication

69. Represents inner feeling that a person do not like talking about.

A. Overt communication
B. Covert communication
C. Verbal communication
D. Non verbal communication

70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective Nurse-Client relationship?

A. Focused on the patient
B. Based on mutual trust
C. Conveys acceptance
D. Discourages emotional bond

71. A type of record wherein , each person or department makes notation in separate records. A nurse will use the nursing notes, The doctor will use the Physician’s order sheet etc. Data is arranged according to information source.

C. Traditional
D. Resource oriented

72. Type of recording that integrates all data about the problem, gathered by members of the health team.

B. Traditional
C. Resource oriented
D. Source oriented

73. These are data that are monitored by using graphic charts or graphs that indicated the progression or fluctuation of client’s Temperature and Blood pressure.

A. Progress notes
B. Kardex
C. Flow chart
D. Flow sheet

74. Provides a concise method of organizing and recording data about the client. It is a series of flip cards kept in portable file used in change of shift reports.

A. Kardex
B. Progress Notes
D. Change of shift report

75. You are about to write an information on the Kardex. There are 4 available writing instruments to use. Which of the following should you use?

A. Mongol #2
B. Permanent Ink
C. A felt or fountain pen
D. Pilot Pentel Pen marker

76. The client has an allergy to Iodine based dye. Where should you put this vital information in the client’s chart?

A. In the first page of the client’s chart
B. At the last page of the client’s chart
C. At the front metal plate of the chart
D. In the Kardex

77. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Kardex

A. It provides readily available information
B. It is a tool of end of shift reports
C. The primary basis of endorsement
D. Where Allergies information are written

78. Which of the following, if seen on the Nurses notes, violates characteristic of good recording?

A. The client has a blood pressure of 120/80, Temperature of 36.6 C Pulse rate of 120 and Respiratory rate of 22
B. Ate 50% of food served
C. Refused administration of betaxolol
D. Visited and seen By Dr. Santiago

79. The physician ordered : Mannerix a.c , what does a.c means?

A. As desired
B. Before meals
C. After meals
D. Before bed time

80. The physician ordered, Maalox, 2 hours p.c, what does p.c means?
A. As desired
B. Before meals
C. After meals
D. Before bed time

81. The physician ordered, Maxitrol, Od. What does Od means?

A. Left eye
B. Right eye
C. Both eye
D. Once a day

82. The physician orderd, Magnesium Hydroxide cc Aluminum Hydroxide. What does cc means?

A. without
B. with
C. one half
D. With one half dose

83. Physician ordered, Paracetamol tablet ss. What does ss means?

A. without
B. with
C. one half
D. With one half dose

84. Which of the following indicates that learning has been achieved?

A. Matuts starts exercising every morning and eating a balance diet after you taught her mag HL tayo program
B. Donya Delilah has been able to repeat the steps of insulin administration after you taught it to her
C. Marsha said “ I understand “ after you a health teaching about family planning
D. John rated 100% on your given quiz about smoking and alcoholism

85. In his theory of learning as a BEHAVIORISM, he stated that transfer of knowledge occurs if a new situation closely resembles an old one.

A. Bloom
B. Lewin
C. Thorndike
D. Skinner

86. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to learning?

A. Start from complex to simple
B. Goals should be hard to achieve so patient can strive to attain unrealistic goals
C. Visual learning is the best for every individual
D. Do not teach a client when he is in pain

87. According to Bloom, there are 3 domains in learning. Which of these domains is responsible for the ability of Donya Delilah to inject insulin?

A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. Motivative

88. Which domains of learning is responsible for making John and Marsha understand the different kinds of family planning methods?

A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. Motivative

89. Which of the following statement clearly defines therapeutic communication?

A. Therapeutic communication is an interaction process which is primarily directed by the nurse
B. It conveys feeling of warmth, acceptance and empathy from the nurse to a patient in relaxed atmosphere
C. Therapeutic communication is a reciprocal interaction based on trust and aimed at identifying patient needs and developing mutual goals
D. Therapeutic communication is an assessment component of the nursing process

90. Which of the following concept is most important in establishing a therapeutic nurse patient relationship?

A. The nurse must fully understand the patient’s feelings, perception and reactions before goals can be established
B. The nurse must be a role model for health fostering behavior
C. The nurse must recognize that the patient may manifest maladaptive behavior after illness
D. The nurse should understand that patients might test her before trust is established

91. Which of the following communication skill is most effective in dealing with covert communication?

A. Validation
B. Listening
C. Evaluation
D. Clarification

92. Which of the following are qualities of a good recording?

1. Brevity
2. Completeness and chronology
3. Appropriateness
4. Accuracy

A. 1,2
B. 3,4
C. 1,2,3
D. 1,2,3,4

93. All of the following chart entries are correct except

A. V/S 36.8 C,80,16,120/80
B. Complained of chest pain
C. Seems agitated
D. Able to ambulate without assistance

94. Which of the following teaching method is effective in client who needs to be educated about self injection of insulin?

A. Detailed explanation
B. Demonstration
C. Use of pamphlets
D. Film showing

95. What is the most important characteristic of a nurse patient relationship?

A. It is growth facilitating
B. Based on mutual understanding
C. Fosters hope and confidence
D. Involves primarily emotional bond

96. Which of the following nursing intervention is needed before teaching a client post spleenectomy deep breathing and coughing exercises?

A. Tell the patient that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to promote good breathing, circulation and prevent complication
B. Tell the client that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to prevent Thrombophlebitis, hydrostatic pneumonia and atelectasis
C. Medicate client for pain
D. Tell client that cooperation is vital to improve recovery

97. The client has an allergy with penicillin. What is the best way to communicate this information?

A. Place an allergy alert in the Kardex
B. Notify the attending physician
C. Write it on the patient’s chart
D. Take note when giving medications

98. An adult client is on extreme pain. He is moaning and grimacing. What is the best way to assess the client’s pain?

A. Perform physical assessment
B. Have the client rate his pain on the smiley pain rating scale
C. Active listening on what the patient says
D. Observe the client’s behavior

99. Therapeutic communication begins with?

A. Knowing your client
B. Knowing yourself
C. Showing empathy
D. Encoding

100. The PCS gave new guidelines including leaflets to educate cancer patients. As a nurse, When using materials like this, what is your responsibility?

A. Read it for the patient
B. Give it for the patient to read himself
C. Let the family member read the material for the patient
D. Read it yourself then, Have the client read the material






As gathered from the Internet, introduced this year are House Bills 2700 and 2926 seeking to impose two to three years service in local hospitals before nurses are allowed to work abroad. Here is a look at these bills from the standpoints of economics and fairness.

Those who can pay more for the attainment of a prosperous and peaceful society should pay more—because they have MORE wealth and happiness TO GAIN from such ideal society, and MORE wealth and lives TO LOSE in a society that, for lack of necessary government funding, is beset by mass poverty and crimes against rich persons and property, like kidnapping, murder, and robbery.

In other words, rich people who benefit and enjoy more in civilized society have to pay more for their continued greater benefit and enjoyment, by shouldering higher taxes—affordable to them—that help the government maintain the established order. In this context, the negative comments in media against the decision about two years ago of Dr. Elmer Jacinto, medical board topnotcher, to seek greener pastures abroad as a nurse were unfair. In effect, he was asked to render medical service to generally indigent Filipinos—a social responsibility to poor constituents borne by governments of other nations that can pay for it, but not by our government that cannot afford it. Therefore, what we have is a problem of LACK OF GOVERNMENT FUNDING, and those who faulted Dr. Jacinto wanted him to alleviate it by his lonesome self-- WITHOUT ANY OF HIS CRITICS HAVING THE GOOD SENSE TO SIMILARLY CALL ON ANY OF THE SUPER RICH TO HELP BY SUBSIDIZING HIM THROUGH A MONTHLY ALLOWANCE SO HE WOULD STAY . But why pick on Dr. Jacinto without doing the same on those who can very well help through contributing money for medical services? What more proof that the rich in our society could have very well subsidized him than the P50 million contribution by Mr. Mark Jimenez to distressed educational plan holders? Even that is a drop in the bucket compared to what a super rich could have contributed, as proven to us by the P10.25 billion (equivalent to $200 million ) donation to a foundation by Mr. John Gokongwei, Jr.!

Moreover, if the problem is GOVERNMENT FINANCING, it should be solved by the citizenry through an equitable TAXATION system, not by selective public service —tantamount to UNJUST TAXATION payable in kind or service—by the singled out and DISCRIMINATED Dr. Jacinto. And if we are talking of taxation, we should look first at the capable rich with surplus or disposable income, not at the poor doctor. In contrast, while there are countries with top personal income tax rate of 60 percent, and despite its budget deficit, our government does not rescind what it gifted to rich individuals—successive reductions in their top income tax rate from the old 70 percent to 60 percent in first half 1980's, then to 35 percent under Executive Order No. 37 dated July 31, 1986, and finally down to 32 percent by 2000 under the Tax Reform Act of 1997.

In war, patriotism alone will not solve the problem of insufficient enlistment in the military, so countries mandate compulsory drafting of able-bodied citizens into military service. The same is true in economics—patriotism alone of a few volunteer professionals will not solve inadequate funding for public services. Thus, there must be compulsory contribution out of SURPLUS INCOME by affluent residents—before we lament Dr. Jacinto's decision not to become victim of unjust taxation, or before legislators with billions of pesos in PORK BARREL raise indirect taxes on both luxury and essential goods.

Increase in indirect taxes (paid for by businessmen but actually shouldered by the buying public as part of selling prices), like value added tax (VAT), will hardly affect the comfortable lifestyle of the rich but worsen the already miserable life of the poor. Unlike income tax incurred by the rich based on ABILITY TO PAY, VAT arises from the NEED or whim to PURCHASE goods and services, such as the need to buy expensive life-saving MEDICINES by the poor, or the whim to buy affordable luxury goods by the rich. I could not believe that the government would raise VAT even on medicines rather than exempt these and instead tax some more the rich, but there it is on a popular drug store chain receipt—12 percent VAT on Norvasc tablet or P8.01, which raised its price to P74.75 per tablet to be taken daily, definitely beyond the reach of many Filipinos mired in poverty and misery. While the super rich can afford to pay multi-million pesos more in taxes—as exposed by Mr. John Gokongwei, Jr.—they are subjected to income tax and VAT at rates that still leave them substantial disposable income and are well within their capacity to pay, while the already hurting poor are subjected to VAT at a rate way beyond their means!

Indeed, the GOVERNMENT HAS RAISED early this year the VAT RATE from 10 percent to 12 percent even at the tremendous SACRIFICE OF THE POOREST OF THE POOR—yet it did NOT see fit to RAISE the top personal INCOME TAX RATE of even the RICHEST OF THE RICH, which higher tax rate would not have made a dent in their luxurious lifestyle to begin with! Yes, even if they pay extra millions in taxes—petty cash to them—local taipans can still enjoy their palatial homes, flashy cars, fabulous jewels, and other luxuries that many Filipinos cannot even dream of.

If we do not ask the very rich in our midst to make a bearable financial sacrifice for the sake of the nation to which they are morally INDEBTED, as it PATRONIZES THEIR PRODUCTS and provides them protection under its system of laws, why should we ask the poor Dr. Jacinto—and other POOR NURSES for that matter—to make a worse financial sacrifice when they are not even indebted to the people the way rich people are?


San Miguel, Bulacan
September 14, 2006

Probe bureau submits report on nursing test leakage to Ombud

THE National Bureau of Investigations (NBI) had turned over the investigations on the alleged nursing board examination leakage to the Ombudsman for further inquiry and possible filing of charges against some nursing board examiners and administrators of nursing review centers.

Executive Secretary Eduardo Ermita said the Ombudsman is now investigating Board of Nursing members Anesia Dionisio and Virginia Madeja for possible violations of section 15 of Republic Act (RA) 8981, an Act Organizing the Professional Review Commission, and Republic Act 3019, anti-graft and Corrupt Practices Act.

"The Ombudsman is now conducting a preliminary investigation. It (will) also check on the presence of conspiracy, if any, by the review centers. Now I was told by the PRC commissioner (Leonor) Lucero that should they find evidence against the review centers then they will file the appropriate charges to the administrator of these review centers," he said.

Ermita continued to decline to name what review centers are being investigated or suspected of possible involvement in the leakage but he had early on mentioned that it is about three to four companies in Luzon.

He said it would be unfair to name them now while the investigations are on going adding that it would be the administrators who would possibly be charged.

"NBI is saying there is possible conspiracy. I keep on asking if I can mention some companies. I was advised by the NBI and PRC not to mention them. It would be unfair if I make a sweeping statement that a, b and c are the review centers," he added.

Ermita said it would also lead to a lot questions like who attended the review in these companies, what would happen to the examination papers of these students and if they should retake the exams. (JMR/Sunnex)

Nurse exec linked to illegal recruitment

Nurse exec linked to illegal recruitment

By Vincent Cabreza
Last updated 00:22am (Mla time) 09/14/2006

Published on Page A15 of the September 14, 2006 issue of the Philippine Daily Inquirer

BAGUIO CITY—One of the nursing board examiners being investigated for leaking test questions during the nursing licensure examinations in June is now being implicated in the alleged anomalous recruitment of nurses for a hospital in the United States in 2000.

Virginia Madeja, a member of the Board of Nursing (BON), was allegedly the Filipino agent of the Florida-based Total Care Staff Services LLC (TCSS), which failed to send many of its clients to work in a hospital in that state, according to Hosanna Chavez, a registered nurse who is teaching at a local university.

Chavez said she has come forward to offer information about Madeja now that the National Bureau of Investigation is digging into Madeja’s career history, as well as the background of fellow examiner Anesia Dionisio.

Chavez said she is offering herself as a state witness after learning that Madeja has been linked to the cheating scandal.

Responding to the Inquirer’s telephone queries, Madeja sent back a text message to say that her lawyer had stopped her from responding to the accusation.

“No comment per advice of lawyer. Please understand,” Madeja said.

The Professional Regulation Commission claimed to have traced the leaked questions to Madeja and Dionisio, both members of the BON, who claimed to have lost the original manuscripts of their June examination questions.

Chavez said Madeja could not explain why the firm she represented could not fulfill its contract with her clients.

The TCSS Philippine office apparently closed shop in 2004, Chavez said, abandoning Filipino nurses who used to transact with its employees at a hotel in Manila.

Local labor officials have no record of its existence in government’s roster of recruitment agencies.

Chavez said it was a group of Cebu applicants who discovered this anomaly, but TCSS employees explained to them that a Philippine license was not needed because the Florida home office was directly handling most of the transactions.

Job, a web-based labor placement site, lists TCSS among its inventory of medical service firms. It describes this Florida agency as an operation that “petitions nurses from the Philippines for permanent RN (registered nursing) position in a US hospital.”

Chavez said 200 Baguio applicants were recruited here during a job fair sponsored by an American businessman, who is supposedly the TCSS president, in 2000.

Among the applicants was Chavez’s brother, Perry Sumahid, who has since left for Dubai with the help of another job agency.

The firm always made it a point to travel to the summer capital to update their clients about their job applications, Chavez said.

She cited a friend who was deployed to Florida because of TCSS, which emboldened them to stay with the firm despite the slow pace it took to process their applications.

Chavez was asked to pay $325 (P16,428.75) for herself and the same amount for each of her dependents—her husband and their two children. She said the job offer allowed her to bring along her family.

She said TCSS asked her to pay an additional $96 (P4,852.80) for all four of them to cover medical fees. She said they had to pay a lawyer to help them process their papers.

The amount TCSS never refunded to Chavez reached P85,000.

Wednesday, September 13, 2006

SolGen pinatatanggal ang TRO sa oath taking ng nurses

Isinumite na ni Solicitor General Eduardo Nachura ang isang petisyon sa Court of Appeals na tanggalin na ang temporary restraining order na pumigil sa panunumpa ng mga nakapasa sa nursing licensure exams noong Hunyo.

Sa 48 pahinang komento, iginiit ni Nachura na walang legal standing ang mga petitioner dahil di naman umano sila apektado ng test leak.

Napawalang-bisa na rin umano sa kwentahan ng pinal na score ang mga tanong sa test 3 at 5 at hindi makatarungan na ipagkait sa 17,000 nakapasang nursing graduates ang kanilang lisensiya para makapagtrabaho.

Nakatakdang dinigin naman ng korte ang argumento sa kaso sa darating na Huwebes ng hapon.

Ipinapaabot naman ng Professional Regulation Commission na itutuloy pa rin ang susunod na nursing exams sa buwan ng Disyembre kahit na 19 sa 33 nominado sa Board of Nursing ay tumanggi sa alok.

Ayon kay PRC chairwoman Leonor Rosero, pawang mga lider ng nursing community na may malaking maiaambag sa propesyon ang kanilang mga pinili para sa Board of Nursing.

Ang mga ito ang papalit umano sa mga nagbitiw na kasapi ng BON kabilang ang dalawang nasangkot sa nursing test leak scandal.

Napag-alaman na ang mga papalit na nursing board examiners ay dadaan sa screening ng Philippine Nurses Association. Ilalathala naman ang kanilang mga pangalang sa pahayagan ayon sa panuntunan ng Executive Order 496 bago magsimula ang interviews. Pagkatapos nito ay saka lamang maaaprubahan ng pangulo ang rekomendasyon.

Nabatid na ilan sa mga nominado ay mismong mga petitioners na humiling at pinagbigyan ng Court of Appeals na ipatigil ang panunumpa ng mga nakapasa sa kontrobersyal na board exam noong Hunyo.


CHED given supervisory powers over review centers

CHED given supervisory powers over review centers

President Arroyo has placed all review centers nationwide under the supervision of the Commission on Higher Education (CHED), ABS-CBN reported Wednesday.

Malacañan released Executive Order 566, which was signed September 8, following reports of a leakage in the 2006 Nursing Licensure Examination.

The presidential order directs CHED to formulate a framework for the regulation of review centers including standards and guidelines for the establishment, operation and accreditation of review centers.

Section 4 of the EO states: "No review center or similar entities shall be established and/or operate review classes without the favorable expressed endorsement of the CHED and without the issuance of the necessary permits or authoritizations to conduct review classes."

The EO also ordered CHED to conduct regular performance evaluations of review centers and to report the results to the Office of the President.

Meanwhile, the Office of the Ombudsman is now conducting preliminary investigation of two officials of the Board of Nursing who allegedly leaked the test questions and answers.

The Ombudsman is also set to file charges against review centers who benefited from the leakage.


PRC examiners eyed in nursing leak scandal -- NBI

PRC examiners eyed in nursing leak scandal -- NBI

By Lira Dalangin-Fernandez
Last updated 04:51pm (Mla time) 09/13/2006

SOME examiners of the Professional Regulations Commission (PRC) could have conspired with review centers in the leakage of questions for the June nursing licensure examinations.

Executive Secretary Eduardo Ermita said Wednesday these were the findings the National Bureau of Investigation (NBI) submitted to the Office of the Ombudsman for further investigation.

In his weekly news conference, Ermita said the NBI also recommended to the Ombudsman the conduct of preliminary investigation on examiners Anesia Dionisio and Virginia Madeja for alleged violations of the provisions of the Act Modernizing the PRC and the anti-graft law.

Ermita also announced the issuance of Executive Order 566 directing the Commission on Higher Education to "regulate the establishment and operation of review centers and similar entities."

Under the order, no review center or similar entities can be established or can operate review classes without the "favorable expressed endorsement" of the CHED, and without the issuance of necessary permits or authorizations to conduct review classes.

Existing review centers are given a “reasonable period” of three years to comply with the CHED's policies.

The CHED is also mandated to review the performance of review centers and make a report to the President.

PNA bats for nurses' oath-taking

PNA bats for nurses' oath-taking

The Philippine Nurses Association on Wednesday reversed its decision to nullify the results of the June 2006 Nursing Licensure Examination (NLE) after majority of its members voted for the oath-taking of board passers.

"Majority of the general membership agrees to the oath-taking because the [Professional Regulation Commission] has allowed the oath-taking already," Marilyn Yap, PNA president, told a DZMM interview.

Yap said the group held a referendum among members to determine their sentiments on the NLE leakage. She said PNA had received complaints from its members following the decision for an exam retake.

"Many of our members, [including the] deans, participated. Some of the deans in their respective provinces participated in the oath-taking and then the parents [were] also calling our office," she said.

In a separate DZMM interview, the chief of the National Bureau of Investigation’s anti-fraud division said that it is too early to say whether the bureau will recommend the retake of the examination.

"I want to [get] to the bottom of this… since our investigation is still ongoing, In the meantime, we will not comment on this," lawyer Efren Meneses said.

Meneses added that NBI is now investigating nursing review centers, universities and colleges in connection with the leakage. He said that the bureau is preparing the sworn statements of witnesses and the schools.

NBI had recommended to the Office of the Ombudsman last week that Board of Nursing examiners Anesia Dionisio and Virginia Madeja should be prosecuted for violating Republic Act 8981 (Professional Regulation Commission Modernization Act) and Republic Act 3019 (Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act).

A Professional Regulation Commission probe also pinned George Cordero, former PNA president, based on witnesses' testimonies that he paid P7 million to get copies of NLE questions.

Reports also said that the leaked questions were shown to examinees during the "final coaching" conducted by INRESS Review Center in SM Manila last June. Cordero, who owns INRESS, has denied any wrongdoing.

Some 17,000 examinees out of 42,000 nursing graduates passed the examination conducted on June 11-12.

PRC had allowed the oath-taking of board passers last month. It was, however, stopped by a 60-day temporary restraining order issued by the Court of Appeals.

Experts cite need to ease export of nurses

Experts cite need to ease export of nurses
Jun Ilagan, Sep 13, 2006

“We are not trying to restrict or control the professional growth and future of our nurses but all we are saying is, then and now, there has been a real need to rationalize the export of nurses,” Dean Josefina Tuazon of the University of the Philippines College of Nursing told Philippine News, in reaction to criticisms hurled against her call for a stoppage of the recruitment of new nursing graduates.

The head of one of the Philippines’ leading nursing schools made the plea as she rallied nursing colleagues in the Philippines and abroad to help repair the damage caused to new graduates by the nursing board exams leakage last June.

At the same time, Tuazon called for more equitable and sustainable recruitment and deployment policies for nurses.

”When I said new graduates, I was not singling out the 2006 batch. I was referring to nurses who need to acquire specialized skills and clinical experience that would make them more competitive overseas,” she continued.

President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo has issued a directive to prosecute the perpetrators of the leakage to the full extent of the law in order to protect the worldwide image of competence of Filipino nurses.

The early resolution of the scam and institution of measures to safeguard the integrity of future nursing licensure examinations are meant, in turn, to ensure the continued overseas hiring by the thousands of Filipino nurses every year. Damage-control measures nevertheless did not stop the U.S.-based National Council of State Boards of Nursing from suspending the country’s bid for accreditation as testing site of the U.S. National Commission on Licensure Examination (NCLEX) for nurses — a direct consequence of the scandal. There have also been unconfirmed reports that the state of Arkansas will not be hiring the examinees of the breached June 2006 licensure tests.

“The leakage issue is a wake-up call and an opportunity for sweeping reforms not only in the administration of the licensure exams but, more important, in the areas of nursing education and training,” Dean Tuazon pointed out. “Ultimately, there is a need to re-evaluate the entire overseas employment program for our nurses as it impacts the ailing healthcare sector of the country itself.”

Philippine and international health officials have in the last decade been trying to find an answer to a dreaded question: How much longer could the country’s healthcare sector survive the exodus of nurses? More specifically, they want to know how many more nurses and doctors-turned-nurses does the Philippines have to lose to industrialized countries before it sees the total crash of the country’s healthcare system.

Estimates as to the number of nurses leaving the country vary. One Philippine newspaper early this year quoted an unnamed study, which said over 100,000 nurses and former doctors have left and landed overseas jobs since 1996. The Trade Union Congress of the Philippines reported last August 6 that in the last 10 years, the United States alone has absorbed some 48,000 registered nurses.

The World Health Organization (WHO), which placed its estimates at 15,000 Filipino nurses leaving the country annually, warned last year that the Philippines would continue to lose its medical professionals unless wide-ranging solutions are drawn up. WHO country representative Jean Marc Olive was quoted as saying that in the next 15 years, the United States will be needing around one million nurses, and this would attract the local professionals.

But beyond the variation and inaccuracies in figures lie the specter of a completely deteriorated quality of health care in the Philippines. In a February 2005 interview with Michael Sullivan of the Washington, D.C.-based National Public Radio (NPR), Jaime Galvez Tan, executive director of the (Philippine) National Health Institute lamented that the exodus of nurses and doctors translates to the severest brain drain ever to hit the Philippines.

“The Philippines is now seriously understaffed with healthcare professionals,” Dr. Tan said. “The Health Department has had to shut down many rural and district hospitals because of the lack of doctors and nurses. This is no longer just brain drain, but a severe case of brain hemorrhage.”

In the same NPR interview program, Rita Villanueva Tamse, deputy director for nursing of the Philippine General Hospital noted that what the country has been relinquishing to affluent nations are the best-trained, most experienced nurses.

“These are not general ward nurses, but intensive care and operating room nurses and other highly-specialized and skilled nursing professionals,” Tamse said.

Dr. Tan issued a white paper last year, ‘The National Nursing Crisis: 7 Strategic Solutions,’ where he emphasized the need for the Philippine government to initiate high-level bilateral negotiations with countries importing Filipino nurses and to forge a “partnership” with them.

“The current approach to the importation of Filipino nurses has been lopsided and advantageous only to the host countries while the Philippines continues to wallow in poverty, underdevelopment, and inadequate health care,” he said. To correct this, he proposed the entitlement of the Philippines to a package of assistance from the importing countries that would ensure the continuous training of globally-competitive nurses, upgrading of nursing education, and the regular production and supply of nurses for its own healthcare system.

Of the seven measures Dr. Tan put forward to help address the nursing crisis, the institution of a National Health Service Act and the expansion of nursing residency and nurse practitioner training programs best capture the essence of Dean Tuazon’s urging to red- light hiring of new nursing graduates.

The proposed Act is not new and has been, in fact, shot down time and again by critics who felt the requirement for nurses to serve the country first for a number of years before venturing overseas is an infringement on individual rights. During the in-service period, on the other hand, the new nurses would be able to take up residency training in nursing specialties such as intensive care, operating room, emergency, psychiatric, neonatal care, or geriatric nursing.

Tuesday, September 12, 2006

Fundamentals Of Nursing : Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept of stress and Illness Correct Answers and Rationales

Fundamentals Of Nursing : Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept of stress and Illness
By : Budek



1. Illness
2. Infection and Asepsis
3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation

1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?

A. Pupils will constrict
B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase

* To better understand the concept : The autonomic nervous system is composed of SYMPATHETIC and PARASYMPATHETIC Nervous system. It is called AUTONOMIC Because it is Involuntary and stimuli based. You cannot tell your heart to kindly beat for 60 per minute, Nor, Tell your blood vessels, Please constrict, because you need to wear skirt today and your varicosities are bulging. Sympathetic Nervous system is the FIGHT or FLIGHT mechanism. When
people FIGHT or RUN, we tend to stimulate the ANS and dominate over SNS. Just Imagine a person FIGHTING and RUNNING to get the idea on the signs of SNS Domination. Imagine a resting and digesting person to get a picture of PNS Domination. A person RUNNING or FIGHTING Needs to bronchodilate, because the oxygen need is increased due to higher demand of the body. Pupils will DILATE to be able to see the enemy clearly. Client will be fully alert to dodge attacks and leap through obstacles during running. The client's gastric motility will DECREASE Because you cannot afford to urinate or defecate during fighting nor running.

2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?

A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation

D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion

* If vasodilation will occur, The BP will not increase but decrease. It is true that Blood pressure increases during SNS Stimulation due to the fact that we need more BLOOD to circulate during the FIGHT or FLIGHT Response because the oxygen demand has increased, but this is facilitated by vasoconstriction and not vasodilation. A,B and D are all correct. The liver will increase glycogenolysis or glycogen store utilization due to a heightened demand for energy. Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion because almost every aspect of digestion that is controlled by Parasympathetic nervous system is inhibited when the SNS dominates.

3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.

A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness

* Disease is a PROVEN FACT based on a medical theory, standards, diagnosis and clinical feature while ILLNESS Is a subjective state of not feeling well based on subjective appraisal, previous experience, peer advice etc.

4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

* A favorite board question are Stages of Illness. When a person starts to believe something is wrong, that person is experiencing signs and symptoms of an illness. The patient will then ASSUME that he is sick. This is called assumption of the sick role where the patient accepts he is Ill and try to give up some activities. Since the client only ASSUMES his illness, he will try to ask someone to validate if what he is experiencing is a disease, This is now called as MEDICAL CARE CONTACT. The client seeks professional advice for validation, reassurance, clarification and explanation of the symptoms he is experiencing. client will then start his dependent patient role of receiving care from the health care providers. The last stage of Illness is the RECOVERY stage where the patient gives up the sick role and assumes the previous normal gunctions.

5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

* In the dependent patient role stage, Client needs professionals for help. They have a choice either to accept or reject the professional's decisions but patients are usually passive and accepting. Regression tends to occur more in this period.

6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

* Acceptance of illness occurs in the Assumption of sick role phase of illness.

7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

* At this stage, The patient seeks for validation of his symptom experience. He wants to find out if what he feels are normal or not normal. He wants someone to explain why is he feeling these signs and symptoms and wants to know the probable outcome of this experience.

8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except

A. One should be held responsible for his condition
B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help

* The nurse should not judge the patient and not view the patient as the cause or someone responsible for his illness. A sick client is excused from his societal roles, Oblige to get well as soon as possible and Obliged to seek competent help.

9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident

A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks

10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen

A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology

* Immunity is the ABSOLUTE Resistance to a pathogen considering that person has an INTACT IMMUNITY while susceptibility is the DEGREE of resistance. Degree of resistance means how well would the individual combat the pathogens and repel infection or invasion of these disease causing organisms. A susceptible person is someone who has a very low degree of resistance to combat pathogens. An Immune person is someone that can easily repel specific pathogens. However, Remember that even if a person is IMMUNE [ Vaccination ] Immunity can always be impaired in cases of chemotherapy, HIV, Burns, etc.

11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease

A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology

* Symptoms are individual manifestation of a certain disease. For example, In Tourette syndrome, patient will manifest TICS, but this alone is not enough to diagnose the patient as other diseases has the same tic manifestation. Syndrome means COLLECTION of these symptoms that occurs together to characterize a certain disease. Tics with coprolalia, echolalia, palilalia, choreas or other movement disorders are characteristics of TOURETTE SYNDROME.

12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?

A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic

* Iatrogenic diseases refers to those that resulted from treatment of a certain disease. For example, A child frequently exposed to the X-RAY Machine develops redness and partial thickness burns over the chest area. Neoplastic are malignant diseases cause by proliferation of abnormally growing cells. Traumatic are brought about by injuries like Motor vehicular accidents. Nosocomial are infections that acquired INSIDE the hospital. Example is UTI Because of catheterization, This is commonly caused by E.Coli.

13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as

1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative

A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5

* Aside from being NEOPLASTIC, Cancer is considered as IDIOPATHIC because the cause is UNKNOWN.

14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease

A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute

15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation

A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic

* A good example is Multiple sclerosis that characterized by periods of remissions and exacerbation and it is a CHRONIC Disease. An acute and sub acute diseases occurs too short to manifest remissions. Chronic diseases persists longer than 6 months that is why remissions and exacerbation are observable.

16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as

A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic

* As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that causes a CHANGE in the structure of the organs and systems. Inorganic diseases is synonymous with FUNCTIONAL diseases wherein, There is no evident structural, anatomical or physical change in the structure of the organ or system but function is altered due to other causes, which is usually due to abnormal response of the organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME are anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON PROGRESSIVE BUT IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in structure of the brain and it's supporting structure which manifests different sign and symptoms of neurological, physiologic and psychologic alterations. Mental disorders manifesting symptoms of psychoses without any evident organic or structural damage are termed as INORGANIC PSYCHOSES while alteration in the organ structures that causes symptoms of bizaare pyschotic behavior is termed as ORGANIC PSYCHOSES.

17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.

A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography

* Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM and its effects on living things in the biosphere. It deals with diseases in relationship with the environment. Epidimiology is simply the Study of diseases and its occurence and distribution in man for the purpose of controlling and preventing diseases. This was asked during the previous boards.

18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.

A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography

* Refer to number 17.

19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.

A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic

* Refer to number 16.

20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

* Perhaps one of the easiest concept but asked frequently in the NLE. Primary refers to preventions that aims in preventing the disease. Examples are healthy lifestyle, good nutrition, knowledge seeking behaviors etc. Secondary prevention are those that deals with early diagnostics, case finding and treatments. Examples are monthly breast self exam, Chest X-RAY, Antibiotic treatment to cure infection, Iron therapy to treat anemia etc. Tertiary prevention aims on maintaining optimum level of functioning during or after the impact of a disease that threatens to alter the normal body functioning. Examples are prosthetis fitting for an amputated leg after an accident, Self monitoring of glucose among diabetics, TPA Therapy after stroke etc.

The confusing part is between the treatment in secondary and treatment in tertiary. To best differentiate the two, A client with ANEMIA that is being treated with ferrous sulfate is considered being in the SECONDARY PREVENTION because ANEMIA once treated, will move the client on PRE ILLNESS STATE again. However, In cases of ASPIRING Therapy in cases of stroke, ASPIRING no longer cure the patient or PUT HIM IN THE PRE ILLNESS STATE. ASA therapy is done in order to prevent coagulation of the blood that can lead to thrombus formation and a another possible stroke. You might wonder why I spelled ASPIRIN as ASPIRING, Its side effect is OTOTOXICITY [ CN VIII ] that leads to TINNITUS or ringing of the ears.

21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

* The nurse never increases the person's susceptibility to illness but rather, LESSEN the person's susceptibility to illness.

22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

* Secondary prevention is also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE Prevention. Here, The person feels signs and symptoms and seeks Diagnosis and treatment in order to prevent deblitating complications. Even if the person feels healthy, We are required to MAINTAIN our health by monthly check ups, Physical examinations, Diagnostics etc.

23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

* PPD or PERSONAL PROTECTIVE DEVICES are worn by the workes in a hazardous environment to protect them from injuries and hazards. This is considered as a PRIMARY prevention because the nurse prevents occurence of diseases and injuries.

24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?

A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television

* An actual board question, The best way to disseminate information to the public is by TELEVISION followed by RADIO. This is how the DOH establish its IEC Programs other than publising posters, leaflets and brochures. An emerging new way to disseminate is through the internet.

28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?

A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers

* The supra and subsystems are theories of Martha Rogers but the parts and subparts are Betty Neuman's. She stated that HEALTH is a state where in all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system. Margarex Newman defined health as an EXPANDING CONSCIOUSNESS. Her name is Margaret not Margarex, I just used that to help you remember her theory of health.

29. The following are concept of health:

1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4

* All of the following are correct statement about health. The first one is the definition by WHO, The second one is from Walter Cannon's homeostasis theory. Third one is from Claude Bernard's concept of Health as Internal Milieu and the last one is Neuman's Theory.

30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is

A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers

* Walter Cannon advocated health as HOMEOSTASIS or the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium. Hans Selye postulated Concepts about Stress and Adaptation. Bernard defined health as the ability to maintain internal milieu and Rogers defined Health as Wellness that is influenced by individual's culture.

31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?

A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle

32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?

A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle

33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis

* Surgical Asepsis is also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE while Medical Asepsis is synonymous with CLEAN TECHNIQUE.

34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another

A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier

35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.

A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host

36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.

A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave

* Disinfectants are used on inanimate objects while Antiseptics are intended for use on persons and other living things. Both can kill and inhibit growth of microorganism but cannot kill their spores. That is when autoclaving or steam under pressure gets in, Autoclaving can kill almost ALL type of microoganism including their spores.

37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis

* Both A and B are capable on killing spores. Autoclaving is a form of Sterilization. Medical Asepsis is a PRACTICE designed to minimize or reduce the transfer of pathogens, also known as your CLEAN TECHNIQUE. Disinfection is the PROCESS of removing pathogens but not their spores.

38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

* In incubation period, The disease has been introduced to the body but no sign and symptom appear because the pathogen is not yet strong enough to cause it and may still need to multiply. The second period is called prodromal period. This is when the appearance of non specific signs and symptoms sets in, This is when the sign and symptoms starts to appear. Illness period is characterized by the appearance of specific signs and symptoms or refer tp as time with the greatest symptom experience. Acme is the PEAK of illness intensity while the convalescent period is characterized by the abatement of the disease process or it's gradual disappearance.

39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

* To be able to categorize MEASLES in the Illness period, the specific signs of Fever, Koplik's Spot and Rashes must appear. In the situation above, Only general signs and symptoms appeared and the Specific signs and symptoms is yet to appear, therefore, the illness is still in the Prodromal period. Signs and symptoms of measles during the prodromal phase are Fever, fatigue, runny nose, cough and conjunctivitis. Koplik's spot heralds the Illness period and cough is the last symptom to disappear. All of this processes take place in 10 days that is why, Measles is also known as 10 day measles.

40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

* Anthrax can have an incubation period of hours to 7 days with an average of 48 hours. Since the question stated exposure, we can now assume that the mailman is in the incubation period.

41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases

A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission

* Mode of transmission is the weakest link in the chain of infection. It is easily manipulated by the Nurses using the tiers of prevention, either by instituting transmission based precautions, Universal precaution or Isolation techniques.

42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?

1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1

* Chain of infection starts with the SOURCE : The etiologic agent itself. It will first proliferate on a RESERVOIR and will need a PORTAL OF EXIT to be able to TRANSMIT irslef using a PORTAL OF ENTRY to a SUSCEPTIBLE HOST. A simple way to understand the process is by looking at the lives of a young queen ant that is starting to build her colony. Imagine the QUEEN ANT as a SOURCE or the ETIOLOGIC AGENT. She first need to build a COLONY, OR the RESERVOIR where she will start to lay the first eggs to be able to produce her worker ants and soldier ants to be able to defend and sustain the new colony. They need to EXIT [PORTAL OF EXIT] their colony and crawl [MODE OF TRANSMISSION] in search of foods by ENTERING / INVADING [PORTAL OF ENTRY] our HOUSE [SUSCEPTIBLE HOST]. By imagining the Ant's life cycle, we can easily arrange the chain of infection.

43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via

A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission

* Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia Burdorferi and is transmitted by a TICK BITE.

44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except

A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity

* To be able to cause a disease, A pathogen should have a TARGET ORGAN/S. The pathogen should be specific to these organs to cause an infection. Mycobacterium Avium is NON SPECIFIC to human organs and therefore, not infective to humans but deadly to birds. An immunocompromised individual, specially AIDS Patient, could be infected with these NON SPECIFIC diseases due to impaired immune system.

45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by

A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses

* The hands of the caregiver like nurses, is the main cause of cross contamination in hospital setting. That is why HANDWASHING is the single most important procedure to prevent the occurence of cross contamination and nosocomial infection. D refers to Nosocomial infection and UTI is the most common noscomial infection in the hospital caused by urinary catheterization. E.Coli seems to be the major cause of this incident. B best fits Cross Contamination, It is the spread of microogranisms from patient o patient.

46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.

A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission

47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection

A. Skin
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization

* Remember that intact skin and mucus membrane is our first line of defense against infection.

48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except

A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin

* Creed, Faith or religious belief do not affect person's susceptibility to illness. Medication like corticosteroids could supress a person's immune system that will lead to increase susceptibility. Color of the skin could affect person's susceptibility to certain skin diseases. A dark skinned person has lower risk of skin cancer than a fair skinned person. Fair skinned person also has a higher risk for cholecystitis and cholelithiasis.

49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an

A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

* TT1 ti TT2 are considered the primary dose, while TT3 to TT5 are the booster dose. A woman with completed immunization of DPT need not receive TT1 and TT2. Tetanus toxoid is the actual toxin produce by clostridium tetani but on its WEAK and INACTIVATED form. It is Artificial because it did not occur in the course of actual illness or infection, it is Active because what has been passed is an actual toxin and not a ready made immunoglobulin.

50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides

A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

* In this scenario, Agatha was already wounded and has injuries. Giving the toxin [TT Vaccine] itself would not help Agatha because it will take time before the immune system produce antitoxin. What agatha needs now is a ready made anti toxin in the form of ATS or TTIg. This is artificial, because the body of agatha did not produce it. It is passive because her immune system is not stimulated but rather, a ready made Immune globulin is given to immediately supress the invasion.

51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection

A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing

* When you see the word HANDWASHING as one of the options, 90% Chance it is the correct answer in the local board. Or should I say, 100% because I have yet to see question from 1988 to 2005 board questions that has option HANDWASHING on it but is not the correct answer.

52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing

A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap

* The most important aspect of handwashing is FRICTION. The rest, will just enhance friction. The use of soap lowers the surface tension thereby increasing the effectiveness of friction. Water helps remove transient bacteria by working with soap to create the lather that reduces surface tension. Time is of essence but friction is the most essential aspect of handwashing.

53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….

A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms

* Hands are held BELOW the elbow in medical asepsis in contrast with surgical asepsis, wherein, nurses are required to keep the hands above the waist. The rationale is because in medical asepsis, Hands are considered dirtier than the elbow and therefore, to limit contamination of the lower arm, The hands should always be below the elbow.

54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is

A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand

* Each hands requires atleast 15 to 30 seconds of handwashing to effectively remove transient microorganisms.

55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below

A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds

* According to Kozier, The minimum time required for watching each hands is 10 seconds and should not be lower than that. The recommended time, again, is 15 to 30 seconds.

56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?

A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml

* If a liquid soap is to be used, 1 tsp [ 5ml ] of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure.

57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?

A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization

* Equipments with LARGE LUMEN are easier to clean than those with small lumen. B C and D are all correct.

58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying

A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree Celsius

* Boiling is the most common and least expensive method of sterilization used in home. For it to be effective, you should boil articles for atleast 15 minutes.

59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body

A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation

* Imagine foods and drugs that are being sterilized by a boiling water, ethylene oxide gas and autoclave or steam under pressure, They will be inactivated by these methods. Ethylene oxide gas used in gas sterlization is TOXIC to humans. Boiling the food will alter its consistency and nutrients. Autoclaving the food is never performed. Radiation using microwave oven or Ionizing radiation penetrates to foods and drugs thus, sterilizing them.

60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?

A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection

* Terminal disinfection refers to practices to remove pathogens that stayed in the belongings or immediate environemnt of an infected client who has been discharged. An example would be Killing airborne TB Bacilli using UV Light. Concurrent disinfection refers to ongoing efforts implented during the client's stay to remove or limit pathogens in his supplies, belongings, immediate environment in order to control the spread of the disease. An example is cleaning the bedside commode of a client with radium implant on her cervix with a bleach disinfectant after each voiding.

61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis

A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene

* NEVER shake the linens. Once soiled, fold it inwards clean surface out. Shaking the linen will further spread pathogens that has been harbored by the fabric.

62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?

A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable

* Only C is correct. Metals with locks, like clamps and scissors should be UNLOCKED in order to minimize stiffening caused by autoclave to the hinges of these metals. NOT ALL microorganism are destroyed by autoclaving. There are recently discovered microorganism that is invulnarable to extreme heat. Autoclaved instruments are to be used within 2 weeks. Only the same type of metals should be autoclaved as this will alteration in plating of these metals.

63. Which of the following is true about masks?

A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter

* only D is correct. Mask should cover both nose and mouth. Masks will not function optimally when wet. Masks should be worn not greater than 4 hours, as it will lose effectiveness after 4 hours. N95 mask or particulate mask can filter organism as small as 1 micromillimeter.

64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?

A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan

* Infectious waste like blood and blood products, wet diapers and dressings are thrown in yellow trashcans.

65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an

A. Puncture proof container
B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”

* Needles, scalpels and other sharps are to be disposed in a puncture proof container.

66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?

A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it

* A dislodged radioactive cervical implant in brachytherapy are to be picked by a LONG FORCEP and stored in a LEAD CONTAINER in order to prevent damage on the client's normal tissue. Calling the physician is the second most appropriate action among the choices. A nurse should never attempt to put it back nor, touch it with her bare hands.

67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?

A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers
B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are reusable

* Leeches, in leech therapy or LEECH PHLEBOTOMY are to be disposed on a BIO HAZARD container. They are never re used as this could cause transfer of infection. These leeches are hospital grown and not the usual leeches found in swamps.

68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?

A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia

* Never recap needles. They are directly disposed in a puncture proof container after used. Recapping the needles could cause injury to the nurse and spread of infection. B C and D are all appropriate. Standard precaution is sufficient for an HIV patient. A client with neutropenia are not given fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables for even the non infective organisms found in these foods could cause severe infection on an immunocompromised patients.

69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?

A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour

* TB patients should have a private room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 to 12 air exhanges per hour. Negative pressure room will prevent air inside the room from escaping. Air exchanges are necessary since the client's room do not allow air to get out of the room.

70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

* Droplet precaution is sufficient on client's with RUBELLA or german measles.

71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

* Measles is highly communicable and more contagious than Rubella, It requires airborne precaution as it is spread by small particle droplets that remains suspended in air and disperesed by air movements.

72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

* Impetigo causes blisters or sores in the skin. It is generally caused by GABS or Staph Aureaus. It is spread by skin to skin contact or by scratching the lesions and touching another person's skin.

73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?

A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do

* The digestive tract is not sterile, and therefore, simple errors like this would not cause harm to the patient. NGT tube need not be sterile, and so is colostomy and rectal tubes. Clean technique is sufficient during NGT and colostomy care.

74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except

A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it

* Human skin is impossible to be sterilized. It contains normal flora of microorganism. A B and D are all correct.

75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?

A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.

* Sterile conscience, or the moral imperative of a nurse to be honest in practicing sterile technique, is the best method to enhance sterile technique. Autoclaved linens are considered sterile only within 2 weeks even if the bagging is intact. Surgical technique is a team effort of each nurse. If a scrubbed person leave the sterile field and area, he must do the process all over again.

76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?

A. The dominant hand
B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience

* Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first and then, the dominant hand. The rationale is simply because humans tend to use the dominant hand first before the non dominant hand. Out of 10 humans that will put on their sterile gloves, 8 of them will put the gloves on their non dominant hands first.

77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?

A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field

* The nurse should put his goggles, cap and mask prior to washing the hands. If he wash his hands prior to putting all these equipments, he must wash his hands again as these equipments are said to be UNSTERILE.

78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?

A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on

* The nurse should only adjust fitting of the gloves when they are both on the hands. Not doing so will break the sterile technique. Only 4 gingers are slipped when picking up the second gloves. You cannot slip all of your fingers as the cuff is limited and the thumb would not be able to enter the cuff. The first glove is grasp by simply picking it up with the first 2 fingers and a thumb in a pinching motion. Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first.

79. Which gloves should you remove first?

A. The glove of the non dominant hand
B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary

* Gloves are worn in the non dominant hand first, and is removed also from the non dominant hand first. Rationale is simply because in 10 people removing gloves, 8 of them will use the dominant hand first and remove the gloves of the non dominant hand.

80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below

1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown

A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5

* The nurse should use CaMEy Hand and Body Lotion in moisturizing his hand before surgical procedure and after handwashing. Ca stands for CAP, M stands for MASK, Ey stands for eye goggles. The nurse will do handwashing and then [HAND], Don the gloves first and wear the Gown [BODY]. I created this mnemonic and I advise you use it because you can never forget Camey hand and body lotion. [ Yes, I know it is spelled as CAMAY ]]

81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?

1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown

A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5

* When the nurse is about to remove his protective devices, The nurse will remove the GLOVES first followed by the MASK and GOWN then, other devices like cap, shoe cover, etc. This is to prevent contamination of hair, neck and face area.

82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?

A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches

* Even if you do not know the answer to this question, you can answer it correctly by imagining. If you pour the NSS into a receptacle 1 to 3 inch above it, Chances are, The mouth of the NSS bottle would dip into the receptacle as you fill it, making it contaminated. If you pour the NSS bottle into a receptacle 10 inches above it, that is too high, chances are, as you pour the NSS, most will spill out because the force will be too much for the buoyant force to handle. It will also be difficult to pour something precisely into a receptacle as the height increases between the receptacle and the bottle. 6 inches is the correct answer. It is not to low nor too high.

83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?

A. The tip should always be lower than the handle
B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward

* A sterile forcep is usually dipped into a disinfectant or germicidal solution. Imagine, if the tip is HIGHER than the handle, the solution will go into the handle and into your hands and as you use the forcep, you will eventually lower its tip making the solution in your hand go BACK into the tip thus contaminating the sterile area of the forcep. To prevent this, the tip should always be lower than the handle. In situation questions like this, IMAGINATION is very important.

84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?

1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth
2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room

A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3

* All soiled equipments use in an infectious client are disposed INSIDE the client's room to prevent contamination outside the client's room. The nurse is correct in using Mask the covers both nose and mouth. Hands are washed before and after removing the gloves and before and after you enter the client's room. Gloves and contaminated suction tip are thrown in trashcan found in the clients room.

85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to prevent contamination?

1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish
2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed

A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4

* Cap, mask and shoe cover are worn BEFORE scrubbing.

86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?

A. Wash gloved hand first
B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves

* Gloves are the dirtiest protective item nurses are wearing and therefore, the first to be removed to prevent spread of microorganism as you remove the mask and gown.

87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?

A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses
B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium

* All stressors evoke common adaptive response. A psychologic fear like nightmare and a real fear or real perceive threat evokes common manifestation like tachycardia, tachypnea, sweating, increase muscle tension etc. ALL diseases and illness causes stress. Stress can be both REAL or IMAGINARY. Hemostasis refers to the ARREST of blood flowing abnormally through a damage vessel. Homeostasis is the one that refers to dynamic state of equilibrium according to Walter Cannon.

88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.

A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers

* Hans Selye is the only theorist who proposed an intriguing theory about stress that has been widely used and accepted by professionals today. He conceptualized two types of human response to stress, The GAS or general adaptation syndrome which is characterized by stages of ALARM, RESISTANCE and EXHAUSTION. The Local adaptation syndrome controls stress through a particular body part. Example is when you have been wounded in your finger, it will produce PAIN to let you know that you should protect that particular damaged area, it will also produce inflammation to limit and control the spread of injury and facilitate healing process. Another example is when you are frequently lifting heavy objects, eventually, you arm, back and leg muscles hypertorphies to adapt to the stress of heavy lifting.

89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is not a nervous energy
B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress

* Man, do not always adapt to stress. Sometimes, stress can lead to exhaustion and eventually, death. A,C and D are all correct.

90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress

* Stress is ESSENTIAL. No man can live normally without stress. It is essential because it is evoked by the body's normal pattern of response and leads to a favorable adaptive mechanism that are utilized in the future when more stressors are encountered by the body. Man can encounter stress even while asleep, example is nightmare. Disease are multifactorial, No diseases are caused by a single stressors. Stress are sometimes favorable and are not always a cause for distress. An example of favorable stress is when a carpenter meets the demand and stress of everyday work. He then develops calluses on the hand to lessen the pressure of the hammer against the tissues of his hand. He also develop larger muscle and more dense bones in the arm, thus, a stress will lead to adaptations to decrease that particular stress.

91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?

A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue

* Death can ensue as early as the stage of alarm. Exhaustion results to a prolonged exposure to stress. Resistance is when the levels of resistance increases and characterized by being able to adapt.

92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

* Adaptation mechanisms begin in the stage of alarm. This is when the adaptive mechanism are mobilized. When someone shouts SUNOG!!! your heart will begin to beat faster, you vessels constricted and bp increased.

93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

* Resistance are decreased in the stage of alarm. Resistance is absent in the stage of exhaustion. Resistance is increased in the stage of resistance.

95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response

A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person

* Aside from having limits that leads to exhaustion. Adaptive response requires time for it to act. It requires energy, physical and psychological taxes that needs time for our body to mobilize and utilize.

98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

* Sociocultural adaptive modes include language, communication, dressing, acting and socializing in line with the social and cultural standard of the people around the adapting individual.

100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

* Andy uses a defense mechanism called DISPLACEMENT. All DMs are categorized as PSYCHOLOGIC ADAPTIVE RESPONSE to stressors.

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